I believe I indicated in a post that politics plays a part in the World Cup, but it was pooh poohed. Any further comments?

Just wondering. Also wondering why everyone "accepts" the hand ball during the US game which would have tied it, but rails on the transgressions during Spain's game. If the US would have tied Germany, who knows what would have happened with penalty kicks, or overtime.

After watching the hand ball several times, I can't believe it wasn't intentional, since the defender had his arms spread down by his side, palms facing the offensive player. It essentially was a blocking position, and if the position of his body/arms was intentional then so was the hand ball. But... of course... no politics in this thing is there?

Wolf (Who isn't going to specifically say, "I told you so!," even though I did. )