I'm studying bilingual (span-engl), speech therapy at the university. Ignacio is correct on this one.

A lisp by technical definition, is an "incorrect" pronunciation of the /s/ phoneme as th. However, from a speech science perspective, the next issue it what can be considered "incorrect," it depends on the dialect being spoken, and the norms for that dialect. In the case of Spain, a lisp in the sense we are talking about, would not be considered an incorrect pronunciation as it is widely used, and it is selective...spaniards use the /s/ phoneme in other phonetic situations.

When I was in spain last semester, I took a phonetics class (with other spanish students studying speech therapy). It was interesting how they explained this particular speech disorder, compared to how it is explained in my classes in the USA (any transformation of the phoneme to th, is a problem needing therapy).
In Spain it was explained that the change or modification had to be occuring in phonetic situations that were not standard for the dialect the patient speaks, for it to be deemed a lisp. Therefore, a spanish child changing all s phonemes to th, even at the end of a word (más-máth), while speaking a dialect in which that is not the norm, does have a lisp, while someone simply speaking a specific dialect of spanish, does not.

Sooooo I guess where Im trying to go with that, is that it is not a lisp, because:
-it is standard in the dialect being spoken
-the person is capable of producing the /s/ phoneme, in other situations

Kelly

exactamundo

esastly

I'm with Mikey...castellano puro is much easier on the ears than the seseo of Central-South America.

Regarding the "zeta" castellana [i.e. the lisp]: The phonetic representation of the "z" is the Greek "theta". It's been a long time since university linguistics, but the evolution of the sound would most likely then trace back to the Greek influence on Latin. For the same reason you have the French and Portugese "Ç", we've ended up with the "theta" or "zeta".

In the Spanish speaking Caribbean islands seseo is practiced and it does not bother me as the ceceo one hears in Andalucía. What I find harsh to hear is the "lateralización" of he letter /r/ by the Caribbean spanish speakers!

parte: /pár-te/ > [pál-te]
color: /kol-ór/ > [kol-ól]
hablar /a-blár/ > [a-blál]

Yikeers! Pol dios!

lol, btw, I don't think that anyone actually believes Spaniards have speach problems. 'Lisp' is not the best way to describe it, ok, but I think we all know the difference between a speech impediment and accents.
Pueth na :p

Of course, the differences between Mexican and Iberian Spanish go beyond pronunciation. Some of the viariations are subtle. For instance, the verb "huir" (to run away / flee) is usually reflexive in Mexico (huirse) but not in Spain (huir).

Booklady, you put a smile on my face today! that Puerto Rican pronunciation reminded me of the days I used to teach English to hot walkers at Arlington Park Race Track. As an end of the year gift I received a t-shirt that said "Maestla"

Im really enjoying this thread. I've learned quite a lot! It took me a while to grasp the seceo y ceceo and Im still not sure whether Castellano is seceo or ceceo!!!

Though my favorite accent is Castillian, I love the sound of Argentine and Uruguayian Spanish. I love that "zheeay" (english pronunciation). What do Spaniards think of Argentine Spanish?

This part is for Booklady...it's been a couple of years since I've been to an opera performance and it's been much longer since I've been to a zarzuela. Sadly I haven't kept up with the recent performers. However, if you want to hear Placido Domingo sing arias from various zarzuelas, I strongly recomend "Romances de la Zarzuela". Domingo sings arias from zarzuelas that his parents used to perform. If you love zarzuela, you'll love this album!

Im still not sure whether Castellano is seceo or ceceo

According to what has been said...: None of them!

Both seseo and ceceo relate to a defect in speech that hinders people to pronounce something the right way. As it's been said above, spaniards can produce any of these sounds. The reason why we don't is because we consider that's the way it must be pronounced.

Here are the definictions by the Real Academia Española de la Lengua:

cecear1.

1. intr. Pronunciar la s con articulación igual o semejante a la de la c ante e, i, o a la de la z.

sesear.

1. intr. Pronunciar la z, o la c ante e, i, como s. Es uso general en Andalucía, Canarias y otras regiones españolas, y en América.

Here, they don't call them defect. I imagine because the RAE tries to be the Real Academia de la Lengua for the spanish language, not only spanish from Spain, so they prefer not to make conclusions on pronounciation defects.

However, the "seseo" consists in pronouncing "z" and "c" (in some cases) like the "s". Obviously this isn't the case. This is what andalusians and L. Am. do, and it's not a defect of speech either since they can produce those sounds (I believe).

And the "ceceo" consists of pronouncing the "s" as a "c" before certain letters, which isn't either. This is the pronounciation they have in that only andalusian province, Cadiz, I believe. They can also pronounce both sounds, only they do opposite to the rest of the spaniard and obviously different for L. Ams..

Real Academia Española de la Lengua Home Page