Posted by: Chica
King Phillip´s Lisp - 01/08/02 07:05 PM
OK, it seems that there are many board members who are linguists, so maybe you can help me with this question... FERNANDO? TARAVB?
I was once told that the reason that the Spaniards (Andalucia apart) pronounce the "c" and "z" with a "ceceo" (rather than the "seseo") was because King Phillip had a lisp. At first the Spanish public thought it humorous, but did not want to make their dear king feel stupid, so they began to pronounce the letters "c" and "z" with a lisp as well, hence the evolution of the "ceco" in Spain.
Has anyone else been taught or hear the same story? Is there any truth to it?
I was once told that the reason that the Spaniards (Andalucia apart) pronounce the "c" and "z" with a "ceceo" (rather than the "seseo") was because King Phillip had a lisp. At first the Spanish public thought it humorous, but did not want to make their dear king feel stupid, so they began to pronounce the letters "c" and "z" with a lisp as well, hence the evolution of the "ceco" in Spain.
Has anyone else been taught or hear the same story? Is there any truth to it?